One of the last things my intellectual curiosity still wants to understand about gender variance is how much of the non-core identity variety has roots in predisposition. Thus, if someone begins to express gender variance only in post-pubescence with theoretically no disconnect from birth sex, how much choice are they exercising particularly if they feel it is not just about achieving sexual arousal.
The only way to determine that would be to plunge into the psyche of each individual and have them provide you with a very honest self-appraisal. If they are found to have no disconnect whatsoever with birth sex, is their behaviour entirely rooted in choice? And why did some suffer so in the past unless it was only due to potential reprisal from society; something we may have erroneously identified as transvestic fetishism.Regardless of whether dysphoria is present or not, any form of gender variance has been severely frowned upon in the West for centuries. So I chew on the question of predisposition outside the presence of gender dysphoria sometimes knowing I will never have an answer due to the likely numerous variables at play.
People are just very complex and under any rigid societal structure, that complexity is too quickly dismissed as being rooted in pathology.
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